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I was reviewing some material when I came across the following text:
Anyone familiar with this?
Thanks in advance of for your help.
Sincerely,
Harper19050
"Neither cervical spondylosis at C6-7, nor an EMG that suggested a C8 radiculopathy corroborate[d] each other."
But then someone wrote (about the quote above):"That does not take into account that a lower cervical radiculopathy can result from injury to the center of the spinal cord, or could be explained for by a post-fixed brachial plexus."
I am confused. Anyone familiar with this?
Thanks in advance of for your help.
Sincerely,
Harper19050